2 Bộ đề kiểm tra Tiếng Anh 12 giữa học kì 1 2021 - Phần 1 (Có đáp án)

Tổng hợp 2 bộ đề kiểm tra Tiếng Anh 12 giữa học kì 1 2021 - Phần 1 có đáp án và hướng dẫn giải chi tiết từ đội ngũ chuyên gia giàu kinh nghiệm biên soạn và chia sẻ. Hỗ trợ các em ôn luyện giải đề đạt hiệu quả.

1.7

8 lượt đánh giá

Kì thi giữa học kì 1 sắp tới, chúng tôi xin giới thiệu đến các em 2 bộ đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 lớp 12 môn Anh - Phần 1 năm 2021 có lời giải chi tiết. Nội dung bám sát theo chương trình học trong nhà trường. Giúp các bạn học sinh ôn tập và luyện tập làm quen với nhiều dạng đề, đồng thời cũng chuẩn bị tốt cho kì thi sắp tới của mình. Mời các bạn tham khảo bài viết dưới đây.

Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 2021 - Đề số 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. village B. luggage C. engage D. damage

Question 2: A. swallowed B. practiced C. finished D. punched

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. equal B. campus C.danger D. perform

Question 4: A.atmosphere B. information C. understanding D. entertainment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 5: Mrs. Stevens, along with (A) her cousins (B) from Canada, are (C) planning to attend (D) the firework display in Da Nang, Vietnam.

Question 6: If one type of manufacturing expands (A), it is like (B) that another (C) type will shrink considerably (D).

Question 7: For thousands of years, man (A) has created sweet-smelling (B) substances from wood, herbs, and flowers and using them (C) for perfumes or (D) medicine.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: I was tired when you saw me because I____for the exam.

A. studied

B. have been studying

C. had been studying

D. would study

Question 9: Mountain gorillas are an endangered species __ habitats are being badly destroyed.

A. why B. whose C. which D. that

Question 10: His speech was careful and______, but his words seemed to make no sense.

A. distinctive B. distinction

C. distinct D. distinguish

Question 11: The more he insisted he was innocent, ________they seemed to believe him

A. the less B. the least

C. the little D. the most

Question 12: The storm is reported ___________ people.

A. to kill

B. to be killed

C. to have killed five

D. to have been killed

Question 13: Species become extinct or endangered for _______ number of reasons, but the primary cause is the destruction of habitat by human activities.

A. Ø B. a C. the D. an

Question 14: Make sure you _______ up the data on your computer because you might get a virus.

A. back B. store C. save D. copy

Question 15: This winter wasn’t_______ as difficult as last winter.

A. almost B. nearly C. closely D. just

Question 16: Indiana University, one of the largest in the nation, is located in a ____ town.

A. small beautiful Midwestern

B. beautiful Midwestern small

C. Midwestern beautiful small

D. beautiful small Midwestern

Question 17: The hotel was terrible, but the wonderful beach_____ our disappointment.

A. came down with B. made up for

C. got through to D. faced up to

Question 18: When it started to snow, he________ his overcoat.

A. took out B. put off

C. took off D. put on

Question 19: Some scientists say that it is still not too late to minimize the effects of climate change_____enough money and effort are invested incorrect projects.

A. in case B. so that

C. even if D. provided that

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Thomas: “How have you been recently?” Peter: “_____”

A. I am going on holiday next week.

B. Pretty busy, I think.

C. By car, usually.

D. I am working here.

Question 21: George: “In my opinion, action films are exciting”. Frankie: “_____”

A. What are opinion!

B. There‟s no doubt about it.

C. Yes, you can do it.

D. Your opinion is exactly.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the bold and underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 22: We decided to pay for the car on the installment plan.

A. cash and carry B. monthly payment

C. credit card D. piece by piece

Question 23: I told you clearly and definitely not to write your answers in pencil, Smith!

A. altogether B. specifically

C. thoroughly D. considerably

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold and underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence.

A. strongly condemned

B. publicly said

C. openly criticized

D. publicly supported

Question 25: Names of the people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity.

A. reveal B. cover C. presume D. conserve

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: The doctor said, “You really ought to rest for a few days. Jasmine."

A. The doctor strongly advised Jasmine to take a few days' rest.

B. The doctor suggested that Jasmine should take a short rest.

C. Jasmine's doctor told that she should rest for a few days.

D. It is the doctor's recommendation that Jasmine should take a short rest.

Question 27: The last time I saw her was three years ago.

A. I have seen her for the last three years.

B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.

C. I haven’t seen her for three years.

D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her again.

Question 28: It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.

A. You should have persuaded him to change his mind.

B. You must have persuaded him to change his mind.

C. You should persuade him to change his mind.

D. You may persuade him to change his mind.

Question 29: He failed his driving test the first time. As a result, he took it again.

A. He failed his driving test the first time and so he, therefore, took it again.

B. He failed his driving test the first time and he, therefore, took it again.

C. He failed his driving test the first time which he took it again.

D. Failing his driving test the first time and he, therefore, took it again.

Question 30: You’d better take the keys. It’s possible I’ll come home late.

A. If I come home late, you’d better take the keys.

B. You’d better take the keys in case I come home late.

C. You'd better take the keys as I possibly come home late.

D. I'll probably come home late so that you’d better take the keys.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks

A surprising number of popular spectator sports, for example, football or baseball, (31)______ in Europe or the USA in the nineteenth century. This did not happen by chance. It was the (32) ______ of changes in the way people lived in those places at that time. Until then, more people lived In the country than in towns. They worked in small groups and had no regular time off. All this changed with the growth of factories and industry in the nineteenth century, first in Europe and (33) ______. In the USA. For the first time, most people began to live in towns, and they found themselves with regular free time. They had more leisure time than ever before. This resulted in the need for organized entertainment. Suitable games developed or were invented, typically team games, in which the crowd could (34) ______ sides and become involved. This gave people some of the entertainment they need in their free time. The recent explosion in TV, with the introduction of satellite and cable channels, has caused an increase in (35) ______ for sports as entertainment. The money TV has broughtto games such as football, tennis, and baseball means that spectator sports will certainly go on playing an important part in our lives.

Question 31: A. started B. stemmed C. appeared D. came

Question 32: A. result B. cause C. reason D. effect

Question 33: A. lately B. next C. second D. then

Question 34: A. choose B. take C. select D. decide

Question 35: A. requirement B. need C. request D. demand

Đáp án đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 12 giữa học kì 1 2021 (Đề số 1)

1-C	2-A	3-D	4-A	5-C
6-B	7-C	8-C	9-B	10-A
11-A	12-C	13-B	14-A	15-B
16-D	17-B	18-D	19-D	20-B
21-B	22-B	23-C	24-C	25-A
26-A	27-C	28-A	29-B	30-B
31-A	32-A	33-D	34-B	35-D

Đề kiểm tra Tiếng Anh giữa kì 1 lớp 12 2021 - Đề số 2

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. scholarship B. mechanic C. technology D. championship

Question 2: A. interfered B. approached C. established D. sacrificed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. workforce B. bamboo C. exist D. survive

Question 4: A. compliment B. counterpart C. interviewee D. vulnerable

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Music therapy is using music to help people with a variety of problems. For example, it can help people with communication and speech problems speak better. It can help people with memory problems remember things from their past. Music therapy can also help people manage stress and be more relaxed. It can even make people with bad pain feel better.

In music therapy, a music therapist works with one person alone or with small groups. The therapist meets with the person and does tests to find out what the problem is and what the person can do with music. Then the therapist decides what kind of music therapy to use. Some people sing, and others might compose music, but a person doesn't need to know about music to be helped by music therapy. There are options such as listening to music and dancing to music. Research shows that these activities are good for the body and for the mind.

Homes that take care of elderly people often have music therapy programs. The programs help the elderly be more energetic and also help with memory problems. Some hospitals have music therapy for patients who are in a lot of pain. Music can affect a part of the brain that reduces pain.

Trevor Gibbons is one example of a person who was helped by music therapy. In 2000, he was putting in windows on the fourth floor of a building when he fell. He was in the hospital for over a year. He was in a lot of pain, and he couldn’t talk. He went from the hospital to a rehabilitation center that has a music therapy program, and a music therapist worked with him for several years. He could sing more easily than he could talk. Trevor says that music also helped him manage loneliness, sadness, and pain after he was hurt. Music and the music therapist inspired him, and he has written and sung many songs. He has even recorded CDs and performed at Lincoln Center in New York.

Question 5: Which is the main idea of the passage?

A. the life of a music therapist

B. other uses of music

C. music for the elderly

D. the history of music therapy

Question 6: According to paragraph 1, music can be helpful for all of the following people EXCEPT _______.

A. people with communication and speech problems

B. people with bad pain

C. people with memory problems

D. people with good stress management

Question 7: According to the passage, the kind of music therapy is chosen by _______.

A. the patient

B. the therapist

C. the singer

D. the composer

Question 8: The word “energetic” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. short of breath

B. full of life

C. lack of energy

D. rich in money

Question 9: It is stated in the passage that _______.

A. homes for the aged don’t have music therapy programs

B. in music therapy some people sing or even compose music

C. Trevor Gibbons hurt himself when he fell off the fifth floor

D. listening and dancing to music are not included in music therapy

Question 10: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that a rehabilitation center is _______.

A. a center for people to recover from injuries

B. a center for poor or homeless people

C. a center for disabled or disadvantaged children

D. a center for victims of natural disasters

Question 11: Which of the following statements is TRUE about music therapy?

A. A music therapist always works with one person each time.

B. A person must know about music to be helped by music therapy.

C. Music can reduce pain by affecting a part of the brain.

D. Trevor Gibbons was not helped by music therapy.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 12: Gareth invited Bethan for an evening out. Before saying goodbye, Bethan said to Gareth:

Bethan: “I had a really good time. Thanks for the lovely evening.” Gareth: “_______.”

A. Yes, it’s really good

B. No, it’s very kind of you

C. I’m glad you enjoyed it

D. Oh, that’s right

Question 13: Bill and Rachel are discussing about ways to protect the environment. Bill gives his opinion:

Bill: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?” - Rachel: “_______”

A. There’s no doubt about it.

B. Well, that’s very surprising.

C. Of course not. You bet!

D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 14: Books can _______ to your house by a local post office if you subscribe.

A. be delivered

B. deliver

C. be deliver

D. delivered

Question 15: The higher the pollution becomes, _______ lose their natural habitats.

A. the more animals

B. more animals

C. many animals

D. the most animals

Question 16: The young pop star _______ a fan up on stage to sing with him while he was performing one of his popular songs.

A. is bringing

B. has brought

C. brought

D. brings

Question 17: _______ which is standing with three other ones in the meadow is mine.

A. The brown cow

B. A brown cow

C. Some brown cows

D. Any brown cows

Question 18: The boat race between the universities of Oxford and Cambridge is an annual _______ which takes place on the river Thames.

A. competitively

B. compete

C. competition

D. competitive

Question 19: It would take those victims a long time to _______ the shock caused by the terrible tsunami.

A. get over

B. look for

C. put off

D. take up

Question 20: You _______ the rules of synchronized swimming again because everybody had understood everything then.

A. needn't have explained

B. can’t have explained

C. needn't explain

D. can’t explain

Question 21: Before I left for my summer camp, my mother told me to take warm clothes with me _______ it was cold.

A. so that

B. despite

C. whereas

D. in case

Question 22: I really hope that none of my friends _______ school this term.

A. run out of

B. come in for

C. put up with

D. drop out of

Question 23: Stockholm, _______ is the capital of Sweden, is one of the most liveable city in the world.

A. which

B. where

C. that

D. whose

Question 24: It is likely that no one can avoid _______ unconsciously by advertisements.

A. to be influenced

B. having influenced

C. influencing

D. being influenced

Question 25: Deep Blue, an IBM computer, was _______ of defeating the world champion Garry Kasparov in 1997.

A. available

B. capable

C. responsible

D. effective

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Every four years the world watches the Olympic Games, which start when somebody from the host country carries a torch into the stadium and lights the flame in the opening ceremony. The flame continues to burn throughout the games until it is extinguished in the closing ceremony.

This is a tradition that started in ancient Greece when a fire burnt throughout the ancient Olympics, but it was not introduced to the modern games until 1928. The modern world welcomed the idea of an Olympic flame with enthusiasm. In 1936, Carl Diem, a German sports official, came up with the idea of an Olympic torch relay for the 1936 Summer Olympics in Berlin. Since then the torch relay has been part of the Olympic Games.

The Olympic torch is lit many months before the opening ceremony at Olympia, the site of the ancient Olympics in Greece. Eleven women take part and one of them lights the torch from the sun using a special mirror. After this, there is a ceremony in the Athenian Panathmaiko Stadium, where the Athens city authorities deliver the torch to the officials of the host city.

This ceremony is then followed by the torch relay. Traditionally, runners, including athletes, celebrities, and ordinary people carry the torch on a journey from Athens to the host city. The relay lasts for many months and goes through many countries. Sometimes the torch travels by boat, or by plane.

The relay ends when the torch arrives at the Olympic stadium where the Games will take place. The final carrier of the torch is often kept secret until the last moment and is usually a famous sportsman or woman. They run around the track and towards a huge cauldron, which is usually at the top of a staircase. They use the torch to light the Olympic flame.

The torch relay represents the passing of Olympic traditions from one generation to the next. Originally, the flame represented the “endeavour for protection and struggle for victory". Since it was introduced again in 1928, it has come to represent “the light of spirit, knowledge, and life”.

Question 26: Which of the following can be the best title of the passage?

A. The Olympic Games

B. The Olympic Flame

C. The Olympic Opening Ceremony

D. The Olympic Closing Ceremony

Question 27: The word “extinguished” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. taken out

B. put out

C. watched out

D. gone out

Question 28: According to the passage, Carl Diem, a German sports official, _______.

A. came up with the idea of an Olympic flame

B. introduced the Olympic flame in 1928

C. suggested the idea of an Olympic torch relay

D. started the tradition of the ancient Olympics

Question 29: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.

A. the ancient Olympics

B. ancient Greece

C. the modern Olympics

D. the tradition of burning a fire

Question 30: It is stated in paragraph 3 that the Olympic torch _______.

A. is lit by using the sun’s energy

B. is lit a short time before the opening ceremony

C. is lit by a group of women in a special way

D. is lit from a burning flame at Olympia

Question 31: According to the passage, what is the torch delivering ceremony followed?

A. a torch relay

B. a torch lighting

C. a torch extinguishing

D. a torch sprint

Question 32: The word “originally” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.

A. at once

B. at last

C. at first

D. at ease

Question 33: Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about the Olympic torch?

A. The torch relay has been part of the Olympics since 1936.

B. The final torch carrier is often unknown until the last moment.

C. The torch relay ends at the stadium where the Olympics is held.

D. The torch is not traditionally carried by ordinary people.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 34: John stayed at home from work yesterday because he was feeling under the weather.

A. well

B. sick

C. happy

D. upset

Question 35: Jack asked his neighbour to turn down the stereo because it was getting on his nerves and he couldn’t concentrate.

A. relaxing

B. fascinating

C. disappointing

D. annoying

Đáp án đề thi Tiếng Anh giữa kì 1 lớp 12 năm 2021 (Đề số 2)

1-D	2-A	3-A	4-C	5-B
6-D	7-B	8-B	9-B	10-A
11-C	12-C	13-A	14-A	15-A
16-C	17-A	18-C	19-A	20-A
21-D	22-D	23-A	24-D	25-B
26-B	27-B	28-C	29-D	30-A
31-A	32-C	33-D	34-B	35-D

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